Which of the following is true regarding the IVP y′=y1/3,y(0)=0y' = y^{1/3}, y(0) = 0y′=y1/3,y(0)=0?
It has a unique solution y(x)=0y(x) = 0y(x)=0.
It has no solutions.
It has infinitely many solutions, including y(x)=0y(x) = 0y(x)=0 and y(x)=(23x)3/2y(x) = (\frac{2}{3}x)^{3/2}y(x)=(32x)3/2.
The Picard-Lindelöf theorem guarantees a unique solution.