Which of the following is true about the Harmonic Series ∑n=1∞1n\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n}∑n=1∞n1?
It diverges, but limn→∞1n=0\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} = 0limn→∞n1=0
It converges to ln(n)\ln(n)ln(n)
It diverges because limn→∞1n≠0\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \neq 0limn→∞n1=0
It is a convergent p-series