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Limits & Continuityhard
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The Banach fixed-point theorem: if f:[a,b]→[a,b]f:[a,b]\to[a,b]f:[a,b]→[a,b] is a contraction (i.e., ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤k∣x−y∣|f(x)-f(y)|\leq k|x-y|∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤k∣x−y∣ for some k<1k<1k<1), then fff has a unique fixed point. Which is a TRUE consequence?