Primeseasy
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In Euclid's proof of the infinitude of primes, we assume there is a finite list of primes p1,p2,,pkp_1, p_2, \dots, p_k. If we construct the number M=(p1×p2××pk)1M = (p_1 \times p_2 \times \dots \times p_k) - 1, which of the following statements must be true?