If X∼Binomial(n,p)X \sim \text{Binomial}(n, p)X∼Binomial(n,p), what happens to the distribution as n→∞n \to \inftyn→∞ and ppp stays fixed?
It converges to a Poisson distribution.
It converges to a Normal distribution.
It converges to a Uniform distribution.
It diverges.