If f(x)=x2f(x) = x^2f(x)=x2 for x≥0x \geq 0x≥0 and f(x)=xf(x) = xf(x)=x for x<0x < 0x<0, is fff bijective?
Yes, it is bijective.
No, it is not injective.
No, it is not surjective.
None of the above