Given X∼Binomial(n,p)X \sim \text{Binomial}(n, p)X∼Binomial(n,p), if the variance is 000 and n>0n > 0n>0, what must be true about ppp?
p=0.5p = 0.5p=0.5
p=0p = 0p=0 or p=1p = 1p=1
p=0p = 0p=0 only
p=1p = 1p=1 only