Integralshard
0:00.0

Given I=0π/2cos2(x)cos2(x)+sin2(x)dxI = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\cos^2(x)}{\cos^2(x) + \sin^2(x)} dx, what is the value of II after applying the property 0af(x)dx=0af(ax)dx\int_0^a f(x) dx = \int_0^a f(a-x) dx?