For the power series ∑n=1∞(−1)nn(x−1)n\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n}(x-1)^n∑n=1∞n(−1)n(x−1)n, does it converge at x=2x = 2x=2?
Yes, absolutely (by ratio test)
Yes, conditionally (alternating series test)
No (harmonic series diverges)
Cannot be determined