Ononot — Consider \sum{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n(\ln n)^2}. By the int

Infinite Serieseasy

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Consider $\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n(\ln n)^2}$ . By the integral test, this series converges if $\int_2^{\infty} \frac{1}{x(\ln x)^2} dx$ converges. Which is true?