A student evaluates ∫0πsin(x)dx\int_0^{\pi} \sin(x) dx∫0πsin(x)dx and gets 0. Why is this incorrect?
The integral should be negative.
The antiderivative of sin(x)\sin(x)sin(x) is sin(x)\sin(x)sin(x).
The value of cos(0)\cos(0)cos(0) is 1, not 0, and cos(π)\cos(\pi)cos(π) is -1, making the result 2.
The integral of sin(x)\sin(x)sin(x) does not exist on this interval.